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Mcqs for dentistry pdf

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MCQs for Dentistry features over multiple choice questions that cover dentistry topics commonly tested in undergraduate and postgraduate. PDF | On Jul 1, , Barry Quinn and others published MCQs in Dentistry 3rd Ed Kathleen F M Fan, Judith Jones and Barry F A Quinn Pastest Publications. MCQ in Dentistry with Answers. MCQ Questions Preliminary examination All of these questions are based on what people . Download.


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MCQ Dentistry'.pdf - Free download as PDF File .pdf) or view presentation slides online. ebook dentistry. caite.info Pages. caite.info Ayko Nyush. Uploaded by. Ayko Nyush. Download with Google Download with. MCQs+for+Dentistry+-+3rd+ed.+().pdf. Ayko Nyush. MCQs for Dentistry Third Edition MCQs for Dentistry Third Edition Kathleen FM Fan PhD, MBBS, BDS .

Mylohyoid 13 Intrinsically, tooth- bound fluoride does offer some resistance to caries, but this is less than that afforded by fluoride provided extrinsically, and the mode of fluoride delivery, whether by toothpaste, mouthrinse, gel or varnish, has a similar effect at preventing caries Cochrane review. See our User Agreement and Privacy Policy. The patient either must have previously been on bisphosphonates or is on them currently, and must not have had radiotherapy to the orofacial or neck region. Aesthetic B.

The book comprises chapters on general dentistry, human disease, oral medicine, oral pathology, oral surgery, child dental health and orthodontics, therapeutics, dental materials, radiology and radiography and restorative dentistry. The answers to each question are on the following page together with some short notes which attempt to provide an explanation.

The production of the book presumably predates the updated guidance on prophylaxis of infective endocarditis and therefore does not reflect recent advice. However, there appears to be a misleading question in relation to rheumatic fever. Question 2. Thus a proportion of patients with a documented history of rheumatic fever do not have any valve lesion.

Reproduction of some images is not ideal, primarily due to the small size of some photographs, and this can lead to some confusion. At times some of the questions appear to be irrelevant to the section. Thus there is a section on the duties of a dental nurse in the chapter on radiology and radiography.

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In the chapter on oral surgery there is a question on burning mouth syndrome which leaves me struggling to think of a surgical approach to the management of this condition! Previous publications from PasTest have generally focussed on a specific examination and therefore the target readership is obvious. In contrast, the target audience of this book is unclear although I suspect it will appeal to undergraduate students and postgraduates in the early years following qualification.

This publication covers a number of topics examined in Parts A and B MFDS and as such I suspect that it will turn out to be a popular resource for candidates preparing for these examinations. To obtain permission to re-use content from this article visit RightsLink. Article metrics. The disease that you would immediately suggest is, A. Diabetes B.

Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Osteoporosis E. Adrenal insufficiency A multiple immunodeficiencies B. Sever caries but minimal periodontal disease C. Susceptibility to infections D. Multiple missing teeth and malocclusion E. Hepatitis B carriage in institutionalised patients Which one of the following preoperative haematological analyses may reflect this disease: Bleeding time and factor IX level C.

Bleeding time and factor X level D. Platelet count E. Thromboplastin generation time A 22 year old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy, spontaneous bleeding from the gingiva and complains of weakness and anorexia. Her blood analysis was as follows: Myelogenous leukaemia B. Thrombocytopenic purpura D. Gingivitis of local aetiological origin E.

The tonsillar lymph node is situated at the level of, 7 8. Angle of the mandible B. C6 vertebrae C. Jugulodigastric crossing D. Clavicle E. Jugulo-omohyoid crossing The use of fast film B. The addition of filtration C. Collimation of the beam D. The use of an open and lead lined cone E. Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both side of a support material.

The emulsion contains particles of, A. Silver nitrate crystal B. Metallic silver in gelatine C. Silver bromide in gelatine D.

Silver nitrate in gelatine E. Potassium bromide in gelatine The inverse Square Law is concerned with intensity of radiation using type D film of mm target to film distance, the exposure time was 0. What would be the exposure for the same situation with mm target to film distance? You wish to purchase a dental X ray machine and have the choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines.

With single change from 60kVp to 70kVp what would the approximate affects on exposure time? No effect B. Half the time C. Double D. Quarter E. Triple the time The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy is, A. Zn phosphate cement and formcresol combination paste B. Quick setting hydroxide cement C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement D. Gutta-percha E. Polycarboxylate cement 8 9.

When primary molars are prepared for stainless steel crowns should the depth for reduction of the proximal surface be similar to the depth of the buccal and lingual surfaces? Yes; reduction of all wall is similar for best retention B. No, proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the contact area C. No, the buccal surfaces has the greatest reduction to remove the cervical bulge D.

Yes, all undercuts are uniformly removed so that the steel crown can be seated E. No, because of lateral constriction, the lingual surface needs greatest reduction Which of the following should be considered? Remove the surface mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide B. Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp C.

Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification Maxillary molars B. Maxillary and mandibular canines C. Mandibular incisors D. Maxillary incisors E. Mandibular molars Which of the following anomalies occurs during the initiation and proliferation stages of tooth development A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B.

Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. Enamel hypoplasia D. Oligodontia E.

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Ankylosis Which is the right sequence of the histological stages of tooth development? Initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, mineralization B. Proliferation, initiation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, mineralization C. Proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation, mineralization D.

Initiation, proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation, mineralization A health 6 year old child presents with carious maxillary second primary molar with a necrotic pulp. Which treatment would be preferred? Extraction B. Indirect pulp treatment C.

Pulpotomy D. Pulpectomy E. Antibiotic coverage To produce a stable correction of an upper labial segment in lingual crossbite; it is essential to: Use fixed appliances B.

Have adequate overbite C. Treat during growth D. Use posterior capping E. Increase vertical dimension 9 Which of the following are typical consequence of dental crowding; assuming no primary teeth has been lost prematurely? Overlapping of lower incisors B. Palatal displacement of upper canines C. Impaction of 15 and 25 between first premolars and first molars D. Mesial tipping of 16 and 26 E. Rotation of 16 and 26 The lamina dura seen on periapical radiograph as: Usual radiolucency between tooth root and surrounding bone as a thin white line.

Cribriform plate of bone making the tooth socket C. Dense crestal bone consistent with a healthy periodontal status D. Pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of acute necrotic ulcerative gingivitis? Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP B. Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes C. Polymorphs and lymphocytes D. Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral capnocytophaga E. Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is true: Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility B.

Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and treatment of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease C. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structure have been weakened D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility E.

Reliance on radiograph is essential Which of the following is true regarding gingivosis Desquamative gingivitis A. It is caused by hormononal imbalance B.

Is seen only at or after menopause C. Is frequently caused by lichen planus D. Is a variant pregnancy gingivitis E. Is related to nutritional disturbance The treatment of Localised Juvenile Periodontitis is frequently supplemented with tetracycline because flora involved is predominant: Aerobic B.

Strictly anaerobic C. Facultative or microaerophilic D. Resistant to other antibiotic The most accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of root planning is by: Inspect the root surface with an instrument for root smoothness B. Use air for visual inspection C. Activate a curette against root surface and listen for a high pitched sound which indicates a smooth, hard surface.

Evaluate the soft tissue at the end of the appointment for a decrease oedema and bleeding E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later. Probe pressure at the sulculus of pocket should not be more than enough to: Feel the top of the crestal bone 10 Balance the pressure between fulcrum and grasp C.

Define the location of the apical and the calculus deposit D. Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues E. Limit the lateral pressure A curette may be inserted to the level of the attached gingiva with minimal trauma to the tissues because of: Has a round base B.

MCQ Dentistry'.pdf

Is easy to sharpen C. Has rounded cutting edges D. Provides good tactile sensitivity E. Has two cutting edges Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surface in periodontal surgery is to: Sterilise the root surface B.

May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the biding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections The general nutrition of a child during the period of tooth formation B. The intake of fluoride during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following tooth eruption D. Sufficient intake of calcium and Vitamin D during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation When the enamel of the tooth is exposed to preparation containing high concentrations of fluoride; the major reaction is: Sodium fluoride B.

Calcium fluoride C. Stannous fluoride D. Fluoroapatite Increase concentration of fluoride in solutions B. Raise the PH of the fluoride solution C. Increase the exposure time to topical fluoride D. Pre-treat the enamel with 0. Biopsy is least useful in the diagnosis of, A. Geographic tongue B. Aphthous ulcer C. Cysts D. Granuloma E. Myeloma In the inferior alveolar block the needle goes through or close to which muscles: Buccinator and superior constrictor B.

Medial and lateral pterygoid C. Medial pterygoid and superior constrictor 11 Temporal and lateral pterygoid E. Temporal and medial pterygoid The extraction of maxillary deciduous molar in 5 years old child; you should use: Mostly towards the apex pressure and some movement B.

Rotation C. Distal pressure and movement D. Labial-lingual movement What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation and what function does it serve after it is made? To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance.

To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient. To aid in establishing the occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient. Mesio—Lingual in upper first molars B. Mesio—Buccal in upper first molars C. Disto—buccal in lower first molars D. Mesio—Lingual in lower first molars E.

Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment B. There will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of the crowns C. At least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontal support D.

MCQs for dentistry

The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction In planning and construction of a cast metal partial denture the study cast, A.

Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of partial denture with distal extension can best be avoided by, A. Applying Stressbreakers B. Employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth C. Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension D. Clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area E. Maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture, A.

Mentalis B. Lateral pterygoid C. Orbicularis oris D. Levator angulioris E. Temporal 12 Jaw relation of an edentulous patient has been established. The maxillary cast has been mounted on an articulator without a face bow. You decide to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4mm this will necessitate, A.

Opening the articulator 4mm B. A new centric relation to be recorded C. A change in the condylar guide settings D. An increase in the rest vertical dimension The ridge height is lost more from the maxilla than from the mandible B. The maxillary ridge will get more bone lost from the palatal aspect than the buccal C. The mandibular arch is relatively narrower than the maxillary arch D.

Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose more bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal one. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denture therapy, A.

Trauma to extraction site B. Increased the potential of infection C. Impossibility for anterior try in D. Excessive resorption of residual ridge For dental caries to progress in dentine, A.

The dentine must contain soluble collagen B. Enamel must contain glycoproteins C. Diet must contain simple carbohydrate D. Diet must contain polysaccharides E. Pulp must contain complement Streptococcus mutans utilise which subtract to form dextran, Refer to Boucher Microbiology A.

Glucose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Amylopectin E. Dextrans At birth, some calcified dental tissues are presented, A.

All deciduous teeth and all permanent incisors B. All deciduous teeth and permanent central incisors C. All deciduous teeth and the first permanent molars D.

Deciduous teeth only The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle B. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle D. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle The principle muscle responsible for the opening of the mouth is, A.

Mylohyoid 13 Anterior temporal C. Posterior temporal D. Anterior belly of digastric Loss of tooth in mixed dentition affects the A. Same quadrant B. The relevant jaw C. The whole mouth D. The relevant quadrant Nasion, subnasale, pogonion B. Orbital, sella… What is the main purpose of using Stress breakers: To distribute the load between teeth and ridges B.

To distribute the load between the clasps and the face end of the saddle C. It relieves the abutment tooth of occlusal loads that may exceed their physiologic strength Acidogenic micro-organism B.

Proteolytic The researcher name is W.

Dentistry pdf for mcqs

Miller Tooth under occlusal trauma shows A. Bone resorption B. Necrosis of the pulp C. Hypercementosis D. Triangulation E. Which is more retentive form for anterior bridge A. Class V inlay C. Pinlay Veneer D. Class III inlay with pins What would not cause an airway obstruction A. Laryngeal muscles paralysis B. Flexion of the neck C. Airway obstruction D. Extension of the neck As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B.

The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth 14 A patient with impacted canine; by moving the X ray tube distally the canine moves distally too; where do you expect the impacted canine: Labially impacted B.

Palatally impacted A 10 year old boy presents with small greyish white lesion surrounded by a red halos on the soft palate and tonsillar pillars, small vesicles are found.

He has fever and pain in the ear. The MOST probable diagnosis is? Herpangina The SNA angle on cephalogram, best signifies the relationship of, A.

Mandible to cranial base B. Maxilla to cranial base C. Maxilla to mandible D. Mandible to porion E. Maxilla to Frankfort plane A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor, he presents to you for treatment two days after the injury.

Pulpotomy and Ca OH 2 B. Pulpotomy and formocresol C. Direct pulp capping D. Pulpectomy RCT Oral examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the un-erupted permanent area. A panoramic radiograph shows the alveolar emergence of the un-erupted permanent first molar crown and three fourth tooth developments, there are no other radiographic abnormalities. The most appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan in such situation would be: Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation.

Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure C. Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the second one to erupt into its place. Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the molar E.

Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and orthodontic traction. Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on many teeth. Which of the following laboratory results would be a possible indicator of this? Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1. Salivary buffering PH 5. Decreased neutrophil function B. Macroglossia C.

Macrodontia D. An increased susceptibility to periodontal disease E. Congenitally missing teeth Carcinoma of the lips 15 How would you manage this patient? Prescribe Metronidazole mg B. Locally debride, give oral hygiene instruction and prescribe H2O2 mouth wash. Give a prophylaxis with ultra sonic scaling D. Refer for haematological screening E. Advise for bed rest with supportive and palliative treatment Provide a long term improvement in oral hygiene C. Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene D.

Prevent gingivitis E. Reduce the need for patient cooperation Plaque is considered as an infection because: Antibiotic therapy prevents or stop its formation B. Indication of bacterial activity C. It is common to both animal and human Which of the following is true in relation to dental decay?

Foods that require vigorous mastication will increase salivary flow and reduce PH B. Tooth brushing immediately after meals is most effective because demineralisation has already started C. Food that encourage the mastication will increase the number of lymphocytes in saliva and thus reduce decay D. Vigorous mastication will increase plaque PH and lead to reduce of decays E.

The Stephan Curve describes an increase in PH during a meal with resultant of demineralisation The BEST treatment for alveolar abscess: Endontic treatment or extraction B. Incision and drainage alone C. Extraction D.

Endodontic In developing plaque; the adhesive polymer produced by streptococcus mutans is synthesis from: Sucrose 16 Lactose E. Amylose Fluoridation is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community water supply to optimum levels for caries prevention. Which of the following statement is correct? Greater reduction in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissures D.

Fluoridation increases vulnerability to osteoporosis Smaller than the real one B. Larger than the real one C. The same size A cusp fracture immediate to Class II inlay can be detected by, A. History B. Visually C. Radiograph D. Percussion E. Recession of gingiva of several anterior teeth caused by exposure and softened cementum; what would you do? Scrap the soften cementum and apply fluoride B.

Scrap the soften cementum and use GIC C. Class V amalgam Patient with class II division II; the lateral incisor is missing. You want to make a fixed bridge which of the following is suitable: Rocket bridge using central incisor as abutment B. Cantilever using central incisor C.

Fixed bridge using the central incisor and bicuspid When repairing a fracture of lower complete denture. Which statement is correct: Self curing will distort the denture B. Cold curing will not be strong enough because of small area of attachment C. There is a possibility of occlusal disharmony In regards to Electrical Vitalometer: To test recently erupted teeth B. Check response for an electrical stimulant C.

Reveal potential necrosis When preparing class III for composite restoration; which situation acid itching should be placed: Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakage B. Should not be performed because it might damage the adjacent tooth C. When extra retention is required D. Only in situations where cavity is shallow to avoid pulp irritation In which situation the translucency of a tooth is lost: Death of the pulp B. Complete calcification of pulp chamber C.

Hyperaemia D. Pulp stone E. Which pin system has proven to be the most retentive A. Self tapping threaded pin B. Friction peak pin C. Cemented pin Reconstructing the occlusal anatomy is based on: Functional factors B. Depth of restoration on a tooth C. Necessity to restore normal anatomy How do you prepare floor of pulp chamber in molars: Swab and dry with cotton wool and excavate B. Use round bur to flatten the floor C.

Under cut walls D. Use flat end fissure bur to make it levelled When do you finish campsite resin restorations: Immediately after curing B. After 24 hours C.

Dentistry pdf for mcqs

A week after placement Recklinghausen C. Neurofibroma Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever What technique is used in the extraction of permanent 1st molars: Rotation movement B.

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Lingual movement C. Buccal movement Barbiturates B. Pethidine C. Local Anaesthesia with felypressin D.

Narcotic analgetics E. Salicylic acid Sub condylar of right side B. Sub-condylar of left side C. Fracture of symphysis What is the most common fracture of Class II amalgam restorations: Isthmus because of insufficient depth B. Internal fracture C. Marginal ridge site What is the advantage of composite over silicate resin: Less shrinkage B.

Less surface erosion C. Less water absorption D. The setting expansion of casting investment is approximately A. The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately: The un-polymerized monomer in Self-cured resin is approximately: A volume shrinkage of methyl meta cyrelate monomer when is polymerized: Treatment of fibrous dysplasia consists of, A. Resection B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large lesion, limited excision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations.

Irradiation D. Excision and removal of adjacent teeth E. None of the above Treatment of all of Giant Cell lesion either salivary or multiple is, A. Marsupialization B. In velation and packing ap?? Cold well?? Surgical curettage 19 Oil or water on impression for treatment casts causes: An increase of the quality B.

No alteration C. A decrease of the quality D. Bubbles on the cast E. What is Path of Insertion A. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts to path of final rest position B. The movement of the appliance from the points of rest position until it is not in contact with teeth What is Path of Removal: The appliances movement from the rest position to the last contacts of its rigid parts with the supporting teeth B.

The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts to path of final rest position When correction preparation for re contouring of occlusal surface is to be applied. Grinding only of the adjusted surface: Should not be felt flat B.

Require a flat crown C. Require no contact with adjacent teeth D. Should be felt flat E. To obtain a desired projection of occlusal loads, the floor of the occlusal rest should, A. Be convex B. Slope from the marginal ridge towards Contact?? Slope from Contact?? Be concave E. Does not slope from the marginal ridge towards Contact?? The transfer of stress by Tensile Action employs T. Fails to promote bone growth B. Promote bone growth and maintenance C.

Fails to promote maintenance D. Areas to be revealed as blocked out to properly loca?? Rigid parts of a frame work B. Areas to be shaped to properly loc?? Rigid parts of framework C. Areas used for guideline planes D. Areas used for retention E. Areas used for support F. Depth of rest seats Aids in balancing occlusion B.

Assure predictable clasp retention C. Form right angle with the occlusal plane D. Eliminate the necessity for precision attachment E. Eliminate the necessity for a posterior clasp Lack of compression B. Sudden high temperature The most common failure in constructing porcelain to metal is: Improper metal framework B. Rapid heating Cool down the slab B. Increase the amount of distilled water The maxillary canine is missing. The best way for making Cantilever bridge: Both premolars B.